Miscellaneous >1900 (Alternate) History Thread

johnreiter

Banned
The Govt. resigning over Simpson seems… possible, but it would force an election about the Marriage, and I suspect no party wanted a ‘referendum’ on whom the King should marry.
This is how I feel, which is why I think he should have called their bluff. I just don't know what (realistically) the government would or could do in that situation. All possible responses (resign, stage a coup, start a civil war) seem disproportionately radical. Which leads me back to the feeling that they would just have to give in and make it legal.
 
What if 1954 Brown V Board Education case makes a difference decision ? What if The Supreme Court rejected the desegregation in the school
How would it affect the Civil rights movement ?
Would it become the Dred Scott v Sanford in 20th century ?
Would it caused the horrible violence outcome ? Or just delayed the desegregation racial integration progress ?

In my opinion May 17 1954 was one of the most beautiful day in American history
So make me wonder if Earl Warren out of the picture , 1857 and 1896 repeated itself ?
 
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This is more of a question, but, hypothetically, what if King Edward VIII had called Parliament's bluff in 1936? The government threatened to resign if the King did not agree to either not marry Wallis Simpson, or abdicate. Suppose Edward refused to abdicate, and married Wallis anyway?

I read somewhere that Edward was very charismatic and popular with the British people, more so than his brother, and also that the military supported him throughout his struggle with Parliament. What, practically, would have happened next?
I highly doubt Parlament would have actually done something like that if they did threaten to do it it was almost definitely a bluff. I think the establishment would have begrudgingly accepted the marriage if Edward was willing to really dig his heals in. Having him on the throne going into World War Two would definitely complicate things. He is infamous for his pro nazi sympathies and I would imagine he possibly openly supports the appeasement part of the British government. However when the war actually starts I think he may publicly change his toon and and perhaps just stay silent on many of his more extreme beliefs out of public pressure and the fact that he very much loved all things English and so he would want to support England during wartime even if he had some reservations.
 

johnreiter

Banned
He is infamous for his pro nazi sympathies and I would imagine he possibly openly supports the appeasement part of the British government. However when the war actually starts I think he may publicly change his toon and and perhaps just stay silent on many of his more extreme beliefs out of public pressure and the fact that he very much loved all things English and so he would want to support England during wartime even if he had some reservations.
I agree. Edward liked the British, and definitely supported fascism, but he was first and foremost a British fascist, and he wanted Britain to be the dominant world empire. He would not be happy with the idea of German hegemony over Europe.

He might offer to ally with Hitler against Russia, in exchange for Germany offering a more generous peace deal to France (maybe, just a return to the 1914 Franco-German border)
 
With Edward on the Throne, could he even persuade the PM not to give the Polish Guarantee and thus keep the Empire out of the European War initially?

If Britain does not pull the trigger over Poland does France go alone? If France does what does Britain do when Belgium is overrun?

If France does not goto war over Poland what is Hitler's next move? His goal is East, but he has a Pact with The Bear - consolidate gains and build forces for the Soviet invasion? Denmark invasion just cos?

If France does not goto war, does King Edward get Chamberlain to propose a European Peace Conference to in effect ratify Hitlers gains?
 

johnreiter

Banned
If France does not goto war over Poland what is Hitler's next move? His goal is East, but he has a Pact with The Bear - consolidate gains and build forces for the Soviet invasion? Denmark invasion just cos?
Eastward, definitely eastward. Hitler wanted revenge on France, and he wanted to unify the German people. But more than anything else he wanted to destroy and colonize Russia. If he got away with carving up Poland, the next thing he would do is build up his forces, and then launch a war with the Soviet Union

Which, France might just be OK with. As far as they are concerned, if Hitler and Stalin go kill each other, the world will be a better place. France can use the time to build up their military, and invade later.

And Edward might be OK with that, since a Europe divided among weak and exhausted nations is good for Britain.
 
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He might offer to ally with Hitler against Russia, in exchange for Germany offering a more generous peace deal to France (maybe, just a return to the 1914 Franco-German border)
The monarchy had no real say in foreign policy by World War Two it was exclusively parliamentary controlled. I only say this because I highly doubt Churchill or anyone in the parlement would go along with it.
 
Does anybody know what the name of a union of Guinea-Bissau and Cabo Verde was planned to be? I checked the 1973 constitution of Guinea-Bissau, both PAIGC party programs, and Amilcar Cabral's pamphlet for Cape Verdeans, yet there's no actual mention of a name for the state, but I see the phrase "Guiné-Cabo Verde" a lot, and a Portuguese Maoist paper called it the República da Guiné-Cabo Verde. This seems good enough to me, but I wanted to double-check if anyone else knew anything different.

Edit: forgot a link
 
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This is more of a question, but, hypothetically, what if King Edward VIII had called Parliament's bluff in 1936? The government threatened to resign if the King did not agree to either not marry Wallis Simpson, or abdicate. Suppose Edward refused to abdicate, and married Wallis anyway?

I read somewhere that Edward was very charismatic and popular with the British people, more so than his brother, and also that the military supported him throughout his struggle with Parliament. What, practically, would have happened next?
The common answer is that Edward VIII would make it his first institutional act to swear allegiance to Hitler and then stage a coup to appoint Oswald Mosley as his Prime Minister.

The reality would probably be something more like what was suggested in other posts: fight Germany anyway because Edward VIII would not want a Nazi Germany to be in a position to threaten Britain, regardless of how much he sympathized with Hitler's ideas
 
Not sure if this belongs here, current politics, or future, but there is the "Artificial Famine" theory that states world hunger is due to political reasons, not due to scientific reasons such as food waste, issues with distribution, agricultural methods, climate change, or anything of that sort. Instead, world hunger happens because developing or undeveloped countries with it tend may have politicians that keep hunger around as a way to control the population, to make it too busy to question the government.

How true is this? It could also explain the "Why can't more money solve world hunger" problem that has been beguiling statisticians.
 
Does anybody know what the name of a union of Guinea-Bissau and Cabo Verde was planned to be? I checked the 1973 constitution of Guinea-Bissau, both PAIGC party programs, and Amilcar Cabral's pamphlet for Cape Verdeans, yet there's no actual mention of a name for the state, but I see the phrase "Guiné-Cabo Verde" a lot, and a Portuguese Maoist paper called it the República da Guiné-Cabo Verde. This seems good enough to me, but I wanted to double-check if anyone else knew anything different.

Edit: forgot a link
I would imagine that in reality there may have been no solid name for the preposed union. It was likely it is likely that it may have not been planned out far enough for a consistent agreed upon name to form. So in that case the republic of Guinea-Cabo Verde or something like that is fine to use. It also is kind of similar to the senegambian union of Senegal and Gambia from the same region.
 
Not sure if this belongs here, current politics, or future, but there is the "Artificial Famine" theory that states world hunger is due to political reasons, not due to scientific reasons such as food waste, issues with distribution, agricultural methods, climate change, or anything of that sort. Instead, world hunger happens because developing or undeveloped countries with it tend may have politicians that keep hunger around as a way to control the population, to make it too busy to question the government.

How true is this? It could also explain the "Why can't more money solve world hunger" problem that has been beguiling statisticians.
I've actually seen this theory but in reverse, meaning that it is WESTERN politicians who are causing the famines because they want to reduce the population... for reasons (the reasons vary depending on who you ask, and generally cover the spectrum from "this is nonsense" to "this is completely fucking nuts")
 
I've actually seen this theory but in reverse, meaning that it is WESTERN politicians who are causing the famines because they want to reduce the population... for reasons (the reasons vary depending on who you ask, and generally cover the spectrum from "this is nonsense" to "this is completely fucking nuts")
Reverse theory is nuts. At best this is "Western (chiefly American) politicians making famine worse because of the problems of American imperialism and climate change hurting undeveloped and developing countries the worst."
 

Driftless

Donor
Based on current discussions about WW2 Imperial vs Metric measurements on the "Malaya What If" TL, I want to ask what measurement system is used in the manufacture of US made aircraft (where tight tolerances can be critical) that were sold across the globe: from the F4 Phantom, through F15-F16 -F18? There are a bazillion nuts, bolts, fastened fixtures on those craft. Which measurement system has been used? Imperial or Metric.

(The Malaya TL that got me thinking about the question above is set in WW2, and I didn't want to sidetrack the discussion with a current question)
 
Based on current discussions about WW2 Imperial vs Metric measurements on the "Malaya What If" TL, I want to ask what measurement system is used in the manufacture of US made aircraft (where tight tolerances can be critical) that were sold across the globe: from the F4 Phantom, through F15-F16 -F18? There are a bazillion nuts, bolts, fastened fixtures on those craft. Which measurement system has been used? Imperial or Metric.

(The Malaya TL that got me thinking about the question above is set in WW2, and I didn't want to sidetrack the discussion with a current question)
Manufactured on US? In 1940? Imperial without a doubt. The use of metric system in the US was only a thing after 1980, and only as an option, not as mandatory.
 

Driftless

Donor
Manufactured on US? In 1940? Imperial without a doubt. The use of metric system in the US was only a thing after 1980, and only as an option, not as mandatory.
No, 1980's and on into the 21st Century. For instance, what measurement system is used for the nuts and bolts on an F-18? I'm assuming not everything is fastened with rivets, welding, or adhesives.
 

Bytor

Monthly Donor
Not sure if this belongs here, current politics, or future, but there is the "Artificial Famine" theory that states world hunger is due to political reasons, not due to scientific reasons such as food waste, issues with distribution, agricultural methods, climate change, or anything of that sort. Instead, world hunger happens because developing or undeveloped countries with it tend may have politicians that keep hunger around as a way to control the population, to make it too busy to question the government.

How true is this? It could also explain the "Why can't more money solve world hunger" problem that has been beguiling statisticians.

Does nobody learn about Holodomor in history class any more? It's the perfect example of that.

BTW, I'd call "distribution" a political reason.
 

Bytor

Monthly Donor
For alternate outcomes to the Russian Revolutions at the end of WW1, it seems the two most popular results are either a UK-analog constitutional monarchy or a democratic republic with the Bolsheviks weakened to insignificance.

But what if instead of the Bolsheviks being essentially eliminated, things were more of a stalemate? The Communist Party ends up merely as one of multiple major parties. They have influence, sometimes even being part of government, but not enough to make the U.S.S.R. happen. Maybe things end up more syndicalist than communist (Not that the USSR was ever truly communist< IMNSHO), because the Communist Party encourages unions to take over and own their employing companies? Maybe even nationalising a few now and then when part of government and then turning them over to the workers?

First, how do we get to that point when going through and coming out of the revolutions?

Second, what happens afterwards?

I know a bunch of the newly independent nations were non-Soviet republics after declaring independence from the dissolving Russian Empire, and then later became SSRs as local Communist parties (LCPs) gained control. Did those LCPs set up an SSR with the original intent of integrating into a/the USSR? Did the local SSRs decide to later join the USSR out of communist loyalty and because they owed Moscow for economic & military support when the LCP took over the government, or most of the population was Russian, anyway?

How much of it was coercion and how much was willing? What is the geographical shape of this Russa, and how does this affect any Russian irredentist policies or actions?
 
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